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raddian
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I am "continuing this thread" in hopes of asking questions that deal with the meaning of the question. https://www.physicsforums.com/threa...dipole-moment-in-coordinate-free-form.359973/
1. Homework Statement
Show that the electric field of a "pure" dipole can be written in the coordinate-free form
$$E_{dip}(r)=\frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0}\frac{1}{r^3}[3(\vec p\cdot \hat r)\hat r-\vec p].$$
$$E_{dip}(r)=\frac{p}{4\pi\epsilon_0r^3}(2\cos \hat r+\sin\theta \hat \theta)$$
I am trying to understand what "coordinate free" means. If the answer is in terms of r hat and theta hat, doesn't that contradict "coordinate free"? AND i would get $$ p = pcos(\theta) \hat r - psin(\theta) \hat \theta $$. Why doesn't p depend on PHI? If it's coordinate free why are we restricting our coordinates to r and theta??
1. Homework Statement
Show that the electric field of a "pure" dipole can be written in the coordinate-free form
$$E_{dip}(r)=\frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0}\frac{1}{r^3}[3(\vec p\cdot \hat r)\hat r-\vec p].$$
Homework Equations
$$E_{dip}(r)=\frac{p}{4\pi\epsilon_0r^3}(2\cos \hat r+\sin\theta \hat \theta)$$
The Attempt at a Solution
I am trying to understand what "coordinate free" means. If the answer is in terms of r hat and theta hat, doesn't that contradict "coordinate free"? AND i would get $$ p = pcos(\theta) \hat r - psin(\theta) \hat \theta $$. Why doesn't p depend on PHI? If it's coordinate free why are we restricting our coordinates to r and theta??
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