- #1
gwsinger
- 18
- 0
Suppose we're in a field F in which x,y,z are members. Consider the axiom of distribution which states that
xy + xz = x(y + z) for all x,y,z ∈ F.
Now consider this deduction:
xy + xz - xy ⟹ xy + x(z-y)
True no doubt, but to check my understanding aren't we missing a step? Shouldn't we more accurately say:
xy + xz - xy ⟹ xy + xz + x(-y) ⟹ xy + x(z-y)
I'm trying to self-study Rudin and just want to check my understanding.
xy + xz = x(y + z) for all x,y,z ∈ F.
Now consider this deduction:
xy + xz - xy ⟹ xy + x(z-y)
True no doubt, but to check my understanding aren't we missing a step? Shouldn't we more accurately say:
xy + xz - xy ⟹ xy + xz + x(-y) ⟹ xy + x(z-y)
I'm trying to self-study Rudin and just want to check my understanding.