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This is not a homework question.
I know that the equation [itex] e^x=1[/itex] has infinitly many solutions in form of [itex]2i\pi n[/itex] but I don't understand how and why.
Will appreciate any help, thanks!
I know that the equation [itex] e^x=1[/itex] has infinitly many solutions in form of [itex]2i\pi n[/itex] but I don't understand how and why.
Will appreciate any help, thanks!