- #1
Yoran91
- 37
- 0
Hi everyone,
I'm reading through tensor product spaces and one question really bogs me. Why is it that the total Hilbert space of a system composed of two independent subsystems is the tensor product of the Hilbert spaces of the subsystems?
It is always posed, but I've never seen a proof or a single argument for this. Sure, it works, but what is the motivation?
Thanks for any help
I'm reading through tensor product spaces and one question really bogs me. Why is it that the total Hilbert space of a system composed of two independent subsystems is the tensor product of the Hilbert spaces of the subsystems?
It is always posed, but I've never seen a proof or a single argument for this. Sure, it works, but what is the motivation?
Thanks for any help