- #1
EE18
- 112
- 13
I suppose this question ultimately boils down to: when we speak of a time translation (in nonrelativistic mechanics, so that the Galilean group is the apporpiate symmetry group under which the physics of a system must not change) what do we mean? In particular, do we mean that the value we assign to the current moment does not matter (of course) or that if we actually actively translate the system in time, then nothing changes (how can this be true? The state may evolve in time!).
This question is motivated by the following excerpt from Ballentine's quantum text on page 77:
This is related to my not understanding the end of Saoirse's answer here.
This question is motivated by the following excerpt from Ballentine's quantum text on page 77:
where it's the equality marked with (?) which I can't follow and which I think has to do with my lack of understanding of time translations. If I am doing 𝑡→𝑡′=𝑡+𝑠 on the system then shouldn't my system get mapped to |𝜓′⟩=|𝜓(𝑡′)⟩=|𝜓(𝑡+𝑠)⟩? If 𝑠>0 I am ahead in time after the active transformation, no? I think the crux of my misunderstanding is why a ##t-s##rather than ##t+s## appears in the argument of the transformed state.Corresponding to the time displacement 𝑡→𝑡′=𝑡+𝑠, there is a vector space transformation of the form (3.8) [i.e. effected by the unitary operator for time translations which was earlier seen to be ##e^{isH}## in this context],|𝜓(𝑡)⟩→##e^{isH}##|𝜓(𝑡)⟩ =(?) |𝜓(𝑡−𝑠)⟩
This is related to my not understanding the end of Saoirse's answer here.
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