- #1
cliowa
- 191
- 0
Hey all,
I was working a little on parabolic pde, and came across this (comes up in regularity theory). Consider a Hilbert triple [itex]V\subset H\subset V^*[/itex] (continuous embeddings) and a linear operator [itex]A(t)[/itex] from V to V*, where t ranges in some interval [0,T]. Now let [itex]w\in H^1(0,T;V^*)\cap L^2(0,T;V)[/itex] solve
[tex]w'=A(t)w-\int_0^t A'(\tau)w(\tau) d\tau, \quad w(0)=0 [/tex].
I want to show that this implies w=0. How could I do that?
I tried multiplying by w and integrating by parts, which results in
[tex] 1/2 (w,w) +\int_0^t a(s,w(s),w(s))ds= -\int_0^t (\int_0^s A(\tau)w(\tau d\tau,w(s))ds,[/tex]
where a(s,w(s),w(s)) is the induced quadratic form satisfying [itex] a(s,w(s),w(s))\geq \alpha ¦w(s)¦_V-\beta ¦w(s)¦_H[/itex] for constants >0, uniformly in t. How does this help me?
Best regards...cliowa
I was working a little on parabolic pde, and came across this (comes up in regularity theory). Consider a Hilbert triple [itex]V\subset H\subset V^*[/itex] (continuous embeddings) and a linear operator [itex]A(t)[/itex] from V to V*, where t ranges in some interval [0,T]. Now let [itex]w\in H^1(0,T;V^*)\cap L^2(0,T;V)[/itex] solve
[tex]w'=A(t)w-\int_0^t A'(\tau)w(\tau) d\tau, \quad w(0)=0 [/tex].
I want to show that this implies w=0. How could I do that?
I tried multiplying by w and integrating by parts, which results in
[tex] 1/2 (w,w) +\int_0^t a(s,w(s),w(s))ds= -\int_0^t (\int_0^s A(\tau)w(\tau d\tau,w(s))ds,[/tex]
where a(s,w(s),w(s)) is the induced quadratic form satisfying [itex] a(s,w(s),w(s))\geq \alpha ¦w(s)¦_V-\beta ¦w(s)¦_H[/itex] for constants >0, uniformly in t. How does this help me?
Best regards...cliowa