- #1
swampwiz
- 571
- 83
I was reading this paper, and I got confused:
https://projecteuclid.org/journals/...ws-of-black-hole-mechanics/cmp/1103858973.pdf
It discusses the Kerr solution for the case of { M4 > J2 } where M is mass & J is angular momentum. However it seems that angular momentum should have the units { M L2 T-1 }, which would means that M is equivalent to { L2 T-1 }. I could see how M is equivalent to { L2 T-2 }.
What am I missing here?
https://projecteuclid.org/journals/...ws-of-black-hole-mechanics/cmp/1103858973.pdf
It discusses the Kerr solution for the case of { M4 > J2 } where M is mass & J is angular momentum. However it seems that angular momentum should have the units { M L2 T-1 }, which would means that M is equivalent to { L2 T-1 }. I could see how M is equivalent to { L2 T-2 }.
What am I missing here?