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In John Stillwell's book: Elements of Number Theory, Chapter 6 concerns the Gaussian integers, \(\displaystyle \mathbb{Z} = \{ a + bi \ | \ a, b \in \mathbb{Z} \}\).
Exercise 6.1.1 reads as follows:
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"Show that the units of \(\displaystyle \mathbb{Z} \) are \(\displaystyle \ \pm 1, \ \pm i \ \)."
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Now an element \(\displaystyle a\) of a ring or integral domain such as \(\displaystyle \mathbb{Z} \) is a unit if there exists an element \(\displaystyle b\) in \(\displaystyle \mathbb{Z} \) such that \(\displaystyle ab = ba = 1\).
So, then ... it is easy to demonstrate that \(\displaystyle \ \pm 1, \ \pm i \ \) are units of \(\displaystyle \mathbb{Z} \) ... ... BUT ... ... how do we rigorously demonstrate that they are the only units ... ... presumably we proceed as follows:\(\displaystyle (a_1 + b_1 i)\) is a unit of \(\displaystyle \mathbb{Z} \) if there exists an element \(\displaystyle (a_2 + b_2 i)\) such that:
\(\displaystyle (a_1 + b_1 i) (a_2 + b_2 i) = (a_2 + b_2 i) (a_1 + b_1 i) = 1 = 1 + 0 i \) ... ... in which case, of course, ... ...
... \(\displaystyle (a_2 + b_2 i)\) is also a unit ... ...So, I think, it follows that if we obtain all the solutions to the equation
\(\displaystyle (a_1 + b_1 i) (a_2 + b_2 i) = 1\)
we will have all the units ... and further will have demonstrated that they are the only units ... ...
Now ... ...
\(\displaystyle (a_1 + b_1 i) (a_2 + b_2 i) = 1 = 1 + 0 i \)
\(\displaystyle \Longrightarrow \ \ (a_1a_2 - b_1b_2) + (a_1b_2 + a_2b_1) i = 1 + 0 i
\)
\(\displaystyle \Longrightarrow \ \ a_1a_2 - b_1b_2 = 1 \ \) and \(\displaystyle \ a_1b_2 + a_2b_1 = 0\)
... ... ?BUT ... where to from here ...
Can someone please help with this exercise by showing how to complete my approach ... OR ... by critiquing my approach and showing a better approach ...
Peter
Exercise 6.1.1 reads as follows:
------------------------------------------------
"Show that the units of \(\displaystyle \mathbb{Z} \) are \(\displaystyle \ \pm 1, \ \pm i \ \)."
------------------------------------------------
Now an element \(\displaystyle a\) of a ring or integral domain such as \(\displaystyle \mathbb{Z} \) is a unit if there exists an element \(\displaystyle b\) in \(\displaystyle \mathbb{Z} \) such that \(\displaystyle ab = ba = 1\).
So, then ... it is easy to demonstrate that \(\displaystyle \ \pm 1, \ \pm i \ \) are units of \(\displaystyle \mathbb{Z} \) ... ... BUT ... ... how do we rigorously demonstrate that they are the only units ... ... presumably we proceed as follows:\(\displaystyle (a_1 + b_1 i)\) is a unit of \(\displaystyle \mathbb{Z} \) if there exists an element \(\displaystyle (a_2 + b_2 i)\) such that:
\(\displaystyle (a_1 + b_1 i) (a_2 + b_2 i) = (a_2 + b_2 i) (a_1 + b_1 i) = 1 = 1 + 0 i \) ... ... in which case, of course, ... ...
... \(\displaystyle (a_2 + b_2 i)\) is also a unit ... ...So, I think, it follows that if we obtain all the solutions to the equation
\(\displaystyle (a_1 + b_1 i) (a_2 + b_2 i) = 1\)
we will have all the units ... and further will have demonstrated that they are the only units ... ...
Now ... ...
\(\displaystyle (a_1 + b_1 i) (a_2 + b_2 i) = 1 = 1 + 0 i \)
\(\displaystyle \Longrightarrow \ \ (a_1a_2 - b_1b_2) + (a_1b_2 + a_2b_1) i = 1 + 0 i
\)
\(\displaystyle \Longrightarrow \ \ a_1a_2 - b_1b_2 = 1 \ \) and \(\displaystyle \ a_1b_2 + a_2b_1 = 0\)
... ... ?BUT ... where to from here ...
Can someone please help with this exercise by showing how to complete my approach ... OR ... by critiquing my approach and showing a better approach ...
Peter
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