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gentsagree
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Homework Statement
I need to calculate, in D=4, the time component of the vector potential, [itex]A_{0}[/itex], given the equation (below) for [itex]A_{\mu}[/itex] with the Green's function, also given below.
The answer is given to be
[tex]A^{0}=+\frac{q}{4\pi}\frac{1}{\mid\overline{x}\mid}[/tex]
Homework Equations
[tex]A_{\mu}=\int d^{D}y G_{\mu\nu}(x,y)J^{\nu}[/tex]
I think [itex]G_{\mu\nu}[/itex] can be used in Feynman gauge as [itex]G_{\mu\nu}=\delta_{\mu\nu}G(x-y)[/itex], where [itex]G(x-y)=\frac{\Gamma(\frac{1}{2}D-2)}{4\pi^{D/2}(x-y)^{(D-2)}}[/itex] is the massless scalar Green's function.
I am given the current as [itex]J^{\mu}(x)=\delta^{\mu}_{0}q\delta(\overline{x})[/itex]
The Attempt at a Solution
What I have done is the following:
[tex]A_{0}=\int d^{4}y \delta_{0\nu}G(x-y)\delta^{\nu}_{0}q\delta(\overline{y})=\delta_{0\nu}\delta^{\nu}_{0}G(\overline{x})q[/tex]
[tex]=-\frac{\Gamma(\frac{1}{2}(2))}{4\pi^{2}\mid\overline{x}\mid^{2}}q[/tex]
[tex]A^{0}=-A_{0}=+\frac{q}{4\pi^{2}}\frac{1}{\mid\overline{x}\mid^{2}}[/tex]
where I treated [itex]\delta_{0\nu}\delta^{\nu}_{0}=\eta_{00}=-1[/itex]
In words, I plug in the definition for the current, solve the integral for the delta function and substitute the definition for the Green's function, evaluated at modx instead of x-y, by means of the change of variable induced by the delta function.
So I get an extra power of pi and of mod(x). Where am I goin wrong?