- #1
Dustinsfl
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$\newcommand{\unit}[1]{\hat{\mathbf{#1}}}$
Let $\varphi = F_1h_1$ and $\mathbf{v} = \frac{\unit{u}_1}{h_1}$.
Why is $\varphi\nabla\times\mathbf{v} = 0$ but $\nabla\varphi\times\mathbf{v}$ not?
Let $\varphi = F_1h_1$ and $\mathbf{v} = \frac{\unit{u}_1}{h_1}$.
Why is $\varphi\nabla\times\mathbf{v} = 0$ but $\nabla\varphi\times\mathbf{v}$ not?