Verify this statement if f(x) is infinitely differentiable

In summary: Try rearranging the given...f(mx)=f(x) + (m-1)xf'(x)+\dfrac{(m-1)^2}{2!} x^2 f''(x)...and then substituting in the given equation. and then substituting in the given equation.In summary, Taylor's series expansions for functions with a constant term and a variable term with the same coefficient give the same result as the RHS when the variable is assumed to be a constant, provided that the function is analytic.
  • #1
utkarshakash
Gold Member
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Homework Statement


[itex]f(mx)=f(x) + (m-1)xf'(x)+\dfrac{(m-1)^2}{2!} x^2 f''(x)...[/itex]


Homework Equations


Taylor's Series


The Attempt at a Solution


If I approximate the LHS of the eqn using Taylor's polynomial,
[itex]f(mx)=f(mx)+mxf'(mx)+\dfrac{(mx)^2f''(mx)}{2!}+... [/itex]

But, I'm lost from here. It doesn't resemble RHS at all!
 
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  • #2
Let be y=m the variable and k=x a constant. Do the Taylor expansion of f(ky) about y=1.

ehild
 
  • #3
ehild said:
Let be y=m the variable and k=x a constant. Do the Taylor expansion of f(ky) about y=1.

ehild

Doing so gives me [itex] f(k)+(ky-k)f'(k)+\dfrac{(ky-k)^2f"(k)}{2!}+... [/itex]

which indeed is equal to RHS! Brilliant! But why did you assume x as a constant and m as a variable?
 
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  • #4
To get f(x) on the right, you need something of the form f(x+t) on the left. What does that make t equal to?
 
  • #5
haruspex said:
To get f(x) on the right, you need something of the form f(x+t) on the left. What does that make t equal to?

t=(m-1)x
 
  • #6
utkarshakash said:
Doing so gives me [itex] f(k)+(ky-k)f'(k)+\dfrac{(ky-k)^2f"(k)}{2!}+... [/itex]

which indeed is equal to RHS! Brilliant! But why did you assume x as a constant and m as a variable?

because that solves the problem :biggrin: The right side is very much like a Taylor expansion only you have m-1 instead of x-xo and f' is multiplied by x and f" multiplied by x2, as if x was the coefficient of the independent variable, so it must be m and the expansion is about m-1.
 
  • #7
ehild said:
because that solves the problem :biggrin: The right side is very much like a Taylor expansion only you have m-1 instead of x-xo and f' is multiplied by x and f" multiplied by x2, as if x was the coefficient of the independent variable, so it must be m and the expansion is about m-1.

Nice! What about this question
$$f(\dfrac{x^2}{x+1}) = f(x) - \dfrac{x}{x+1}f'(x)+\left( \dfrac{x}{x+1} \right) ^2 f"(x)+... $$

This doesn't look as simple as the previous one. There are alternating + and - signs along with x/x+1 as the coefficient in each term.
 
  • #8
utkarshakash said:
Nice! What about this question
$$f(\dfrac{x^2}{x+1}) = f(x) - \dfrac{x}{x+1}f'(x)+\left( \dfrac{x}{x+1} \right) ^2 f"(x)+... $$

This doesn't look as simple as the previous one. There are alternating + and - signs along with x/x+1 as the coefficient in each term.

Write ##x^2/(x+1) = x + t## and figure out the value of ##t##.

BTW: in both these questions, just having ##f## infinitely differentiable may not be not enough: you might also need ##f## to be analytic. There are infinitely-differentiable functions which do not equal their Maclauren or Taylor series, but that is for functions expanded about a fixed point ##x_0##; this problem is different, so I am not really sure whether or not there are counterexamples in this case. However, if ##f## is known to be analytic you are basically done.
 
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  • #9
Ray Vickson said:
Write ##x^2/(x+1) = x + t## and figure out the value of ##t##.

BTW: in both these questions, just having ##f## infinitely differentiable may not be not enough: you might also need ##f## to be analytic. There are infinitely-differentiable functions which do not equal their Maclauren or Taylor series, but that is for functions expanded about a fixed point ##x_0##; this problem is different, so I am not really sure whether or not there are counterexamples in this case. However, if ##f## is known to be analytic you are basically done.

But what about the factorials that I get in the denominator in the expansion of f(x+t)?
 
  • #10
utkarshakash said:
But what about the factorials that I get in the denominator in the expansion of f(x+t)?

What has that got to do with anything? Of course the Taylor expansion has factorials in the denominators---so what?
 
  • #11
utkarshakash said:
But what about the factorials that I get in the denominator in the expansion of f(x+t)?
Looks to me like the question has left out the factorials by mistake.
 
  • #12
haruspex said:
Looks to me like the question has left out the factorials by mistake.

Hmm, that might be true. Here's another expression which I'm finding difficult to solve.

[itex]f(x)=f(0)+xf'(x)-\frac{x^2}{2!}f"(x)+..... [/itex]

Here t=0. Now, if I expand it as Taylor's series, I get
$$f(0)+xf'(0)+x^2/2! f''(0)...$$
which does not contain alternating + and - signs as in the original question. Also, the argument of f is 0 for all terms in my case.
 
  • #13
utkarshakash said:
Hmm, that might be true. Here's another expression which I'm finding difficult to solve.

[itex]f(x)=f(0)+xf'(x)-\frac{x^2}{2!}f"(x)+..... [/itex]

Here t=0. Now, if I expand it as Taylor's series, I get
$$f(0)+xf'(0)+x^2/2! f''(0)...$$
which does not contain alternating + and - signs as in the original question. Also, the argument of f is 0 for all terms in my case.

Try rearranging the given equation
with f(0) one side and all else the other
 
  • #14
haruspex said:
Try rearranging the given equation
with f(0) one side and all else the other

$$f(0) = f(x) -xf'(x)+\frac{x^2}{2!} f''(x) - \frac{x^3}{3!}f'''(x)+...$$

I still can't figure out what to do next.
 
  • #15
utkarshakash said:
$$f(0) = f(x) -xf'(x)+\frac{x^2}{2!} f''(x) - \frac{x^3}{3!}f'''(x)+...$$

I still can't figure out what to do next.
As before, the standard form is f(x+t) = f(x) + tf'(x) + ... So you need to find substitutions for x and t in there to turn f(x+t) into f(0) etc.
 
  • #16
haruspex said:
As before, the standard form is f(x+t) = f(x) + tf'(x) + ... So you need to find substitutions for x and t in there to turn f(x+t) into f(0) etc.

Thanks!
 
  • #17
By the way, is the only condition here that f be infinitely differentiable? If that is the case then it does not necessarily follow that the Taylor's series for f itself converges to f. For that you need that f is "analytic".
 

Related to Verify this statement if f(x) is infinitely differentiable

What does it mean for a function to be infinitely differentiable?

Infinitely differentiable means that the function can be differentiated an infinite number of times without ever reaching a point where it is not differentiable. This means that the function's derivative exists at every point along the function's domain.

How can you verify if a function is infinitely differentiable?

To verify if a function is infinitely differentiable, you can check if the function has a finite number of derivatives. If the function can be differentiated an infinite number of times without reaching a point where it is not differentiable, then the function is infinitely differentiable.

What is the significance of a function being infinitely differentiable?

A function being infinitely differentiable means that the function is very smooth and well-behaved. This makes it easier to analyze and work with mathematically. It also allows for more accurate approximations and predictions.

Are all continuous functions infinitely differentiable?

No, not all continuous functions are infinitely differentiable. Continuous functions can have points where they are not differentiable, which would prevent them from being infinitely differentiable.

What are some real-world applications of infinitely differentiable functions?

Infinitely differentiable functions are used in various fields such as physics, engineering, and economics to model and analyze systems and phenomena. They are also used in optimization problems and to calculate derivatives for approximation and prediction purposes.

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