- #1
Master1022
- 611
- 117
- Homework Statement
- If we send a voltage pulse of amplitude ## V_0 ## through a lossless transmission line, what does the voltage at the output look like when the load impedance is ## \infty ## (i.e. open circuit). We can assume that the time taken by the pulse to traverse the line ## \tau ## is much greater than the duration.
- Relevant Equations
- Reflection coefficient
Hi,
I was recently attempting a question about transmission lines and I don't seem to really understand how the voltages travel through the line.
Question:
If we send a voltage pulse of amplitude ## V_0 ## through a lossless transmission line, what does the voltage at the output look like when the load impedance is ## \infty ## (i.e. open circuit). We can assume that the time taken by the pulse to traverse the line ## \tau ## is much greater than the duration. The source impedance is equal to the characteristic impedance of the line ## Z_0 ##.
My approach:
We know the expression for the reflection coefficient ## \rho ## in this case at the end is given by:
$$ \rho_{end} = \frac{Z_L - Z_0}{Z_L + Z_0} = \frac{\infty - Z_0}{\infty + Z_0} = 1 $$
and at the source it is:
$$ \rho_{source} = \frac{Z_L - Z_0}{Z_L + Z_0} = \frac{Z_0 - Z_0}{Z_0 + Z_0} = 0 $$
By using the wave equation, we can derive the following solution for the voltage:
$$ V(z, t) = ( Ae^{j \beta z} + Be^{-j \beta z} ) e^{j \omega t} $$
where ## \beta ## is the propagation coefficient. I thought that this wave solution meant that there are forward and backward traveling waves which would each be of height ## V_0 / 2 ##. Therefore, the backwards traveling wave would be absorbed by the source and the forwards traveling wave would have an amplitude ## V_0 / 2 ## which would reach the end at time ## \tau ##. Then it would be reflected and sent backwards and then absorbed by the source.
However, the answer says that the voltage on the end is of amplitude ## 2 V_0 ##, but I don't really understand how this can be the case?
Would anyone be able to explain to me why this is the case? How does the voltage actually double? I think this means that my understanding of how the forward and backwards wave travel is incorrect.
Any help is greatly appreciated. Thanks.
I was recently attempting a question about transmission lines and I don't seem to really understand how the voltages travel through the line.
Question:
If we send a voltage pulse of amplitude ## V_0 ## through a lossless transmission line, what does the voltage at the output look like when the load impedance is ## \infty ## (i.e. open circuit). We can assume that the time taken by the pulse to traverse the line ## \tau ## is much greater than the duration. The source impedance is equal to the characteristic impedance of the line ## Z_0 ##.
My approach:
We know the expression for the reflection coefficient ## \rho ## in this case at the end is given by:
$$ \rho_{end} = \frac{Z_L - Z_0}{Z_L + Z_0} = \frac{\infty - Z_0}{\infty + Z_0} = 1 $$
and at the source it is:
$$ \rho_{source} = \frac{Z_L - Z_0}{Z_L + Z_0} = \frac{Z_0 - Z_0}{Z_0 + Z_0} = 0 $$
By using the wave equation, we can derive the following solution for the voltage:
$$ V(z, t) = ( Ae^{j \beta z} + Be^{-j \beta z} ) e^{j \omega t} $$
where ## \beta ## is the propagation coefficient. I thought that this wave solution meant that there are forward and backward traveling waves which would each be of height ## V_0 / 2 ##. Therefore, the backwards traveling wave would be absorbed by the source and the forwards traveling wave would have an amplitude ## V_0 / 2 ## which would reach the end at time ## \tau ##. Then it would be reflected and sent backwards and then absorbed by the source.
However, the answer says that the voltage on the end is of amplitude ## 2 V_0 ##, but I don't really understand how this can be the case?
Would anyone be able to explain to me why this is the case? How does the voltage actually double? I think this means that my understanding of how the forward and backwards wave travel is incorrect.
Any help is greatly appreciated. Thanks.