- #1
A Dhingra
- 211
- 1
Hi everyone
When a momentum operator followed by a position operator acts on a wave vector what does it give? (or the other wave around, changing the order)
Is this the collapse of a wave function? And if so, can we solve this to predict the answer or not?
I tried but got stuck in the math,
It is difficult to show the math here.. but the procedure that i used is:
assume a state that is a superposition of both position eigen state and momentum eigen state. (I hope that can form a state, i mean it should)
Now when this state is acted upon by the position operator: well it should pick out the position state (collapse)
but actually the momentum state is Fourier transform of X vector, so X° can operate on that too...
and then P° can act on it...
Does this seem fine? I was expecting X° will pick out X state and then P° will have to act on that... like collapse..
I am guessing my idea of a collapse of wave function is flawed.
(I studied QM using the Schrodinger's wave function approach and these kets n operators confuse me..)
I will be happy if someone could help me with these ideas and point out exactly what is wrong.
Thanks
When a momentum operator followed by a position operator acts on a wave vector what does it give? (or the other wave around, changing the order)
Is this the collapse of a wave function? And if so, can we solve this to predict the answer or not?
I tried but got stuck in the math,
It is difficult to show the math here.. but the procedure that i used is:
assume a state that is a superposition of both position eigen state and momentum eigen state. (I hope that can form a state, i mean it should)
Now when this state is acted upon by the position operator: well it should pick out the position state (collapse)
but actually the momentum state is Fourier transform of X vector, so X° can operate on that too...
and then P° can act on it...
Does this seem fine? I was expecting X° will pick out X state and then P° will have to act on that... like collapse..
I am guessing my idea of a collapse of wave function is flawed.
(I studied QM using the Schrodinger's wave function approach and these kets n operators confuse me..)
I will be happy if someone could help me with these ideas and point out exactly what is wrong.
Thanks