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quantumech
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Prove that the probability of finding a particle of mass m in a one-dimensional potential well of length L is 0.5 for both the first and second half of the well for the state with n = 2. Demonstrate that these results make sense in light of the form of the wavefunction for each case.
Someone please help me with proofs. What is general outline i should follow to do this?
Someone please help me with proofs. What is general outline i should follow to do this?
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