- #1
Rasalhague
- 1,387
- 2
I'm trying to get a handle on these concepts, which are new to me.
http://planetmath.org/encyclopedia/HamelBasis.html :
Kreyszig offers the following example of a Schauder basis for [itex]l^2[/itex]: [itex]e_i=(\delta_{ij})[/itex] (Introductory Functional Analysis with Applications, p. 43-44). Since any vector can be written as a linear combination of vectors from this set, it spans [itex]l^2[/itex] http://planetmath.org/encyclopedia/SpanningSet.html . Every finite subset of [itex]\left \{ e_i \in l^2 : e_i = (\delta_{ij}) \right \}[/itex] is linearly independent, so, by definition (Kreyszig 2.1-6, p. 53), the set itself is linearly independent. Thus, as a linearly independent spanning set, it constitutes a Hamel basis, if I've undersood the PlanetMath definition correctly. The set is countably infinite, since its elements can be indexed by the natural numbers. Therefore [itex]\dim(l^2) = \beth_0[/itex].
Now, according to Kreyszig, [itex]l^2[/itex] is a Banach space. And it's infinite dimensional. Yet Morrison writes, "Any infinite dimensional Banach space must have an uncountable Hamel basis" (Functional Analysis: An Introduction to Banach Space Theory). If my conclusion was right, I think this would contradict the PlanetMath article, quoted above, which says that "any two (Hamel) bases of the same vector space must have the same cardinality".
So presumably my reasoning was mistaken. I suspect that, at some stage, I've assumed something that's true only of finite dimensional linear algebra without realize that it doesn't generalise to the case of infinite dimensions. Any advice welcome...
P.S. Is the essential difference between a Schauder basis (countable basis) and a Hamel basis that a Schauder basis needn't be linearly independent, and in this sense is, in PlanetMath's words "not usually a basis"? I'm not sure how this works with the uniqueness of representation of a particular vector, but the only other possibility seems to be that a Schauder basis doesn't necessarily span the space; but the definition of Schauder basis requires that it does.
http://planetmath.org/encyclopedia/HamelBasis.html :
A (Hamel) basis of a vector space is a linearly independent spanning set. It can be proved that any two bases of the same vector space must have the same cardinality. This introduces the notion of dimension of a vector space, which is precisely the cardinality of the basis, and is denoted by dim(V) , where V is the vector space. The fact that every vector space has a Hamel basis is an important consequence of the axiom of choice (in fact, that proposition is equivalent to the axiom of choice.)
Kreyszig offers the following example of a Schauder basis for [itex]l^2[/itex]: [itex]e_i=(\delta_{ij})[/itex] (Introductory Functional Analysis with Applications, p. 43-44). Since any vector can be written as a linear combination of vectors from this set, it spans [itex]l^2[/itex] http://planetmath.org/encyclopedia/SpanningSet.html . Every finite subset of [itex]\left \{ e_i \in l^2 : e_i = (\delta_{ij}) \right \}[/itex] is linearly independent, so, by definition (Kreyszig 2.1-6, p. 53), the set itself is linearly independent. Thus, as a linearly independent spanning set, it constitutes a Hamel basis, if I've undersood the PlanetMath definition correctly. The set is countably infinite, since its elements can be indexed by the natural numbers. Therefore [itex]\dim(l^2) = \beth_0[/itex].
Now, according to Kreyszig, [itex]l^2[/itex] is a Banach space. And it's infinite dimensional. Yet Morrison writes, "Any infinite dimensional Banach space must have an uncountable Hamel basis" (Functional Analysis: An Introduction to Banach Space Theory). If my conclusion was right, I think this would contradict the PlanetMath article, quoted above, which says that "any two (Hamel) bases of the same vector space must have the same cardinality".
So presumably my reasoning was mistaken. I suspect that, at some stage, I've assumed something that's true only of finite dimensional linear algebra without realize that it doesn't generalise to the case of infinite dimensions. Any advice welcome...
P.S. Is the essential difference between a Schauder basis (countable basis) and a Hamel basis that a Schauder basis needn't be linearly independent, and in this sense is, in PlanetMath's words "not usually a basis"? I'm not sure how this works with the uniqueness of representation of a particular vector, but the only other possibility seems to be that a Schauder basis doesn't necessarily span the space; but the definition of Schauder basis requires that it does.
Last edited by a moderator: