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Matt2411
- 33
- 1
Only thing I know about them is that they are alternate mechanical systems to bypass the Newtonian concept of a "force". How do they achieve this? Why haven't they replaced Newtonian mechanics, if they somehow "invalidate" it or make it less accurate, by the Occam's razor principle?
Thanks in advance for all the help (and please, if it's not too much to ask, bear in mind I'm not a physics student, so I'd appreciate simplicity).
Thanks in advance for all the help (and please, if it's not too much to ask, bear in mind I'm not a physics student, so I'd appreciate simplicity).