- #1
IniquiTrance
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Why is it that a metric space (X,d) always has two clopen subsets; namely {0}, and X itself?
Rudin calls it trivial, and so do about 15 other resources I've perused.
What confuses me is that if we define some metric space to be the circle in ℝ2: x2+y2 ≤ r2, then points on the boundary of the circle don't have neighborhoods contained entirely in X, since for any radius > 0, the neighborhood will extend out of X.
Thanks!
Rudin calls it trivial, and so do about 15 other resources I've perused.
What confuses me is that if we define some metric space to be the circle in ℝ2: x2+y2 ≤ r2, then points on the boundary of the circle don't have neighborhoods contained entirely in X, since for any radius > 0, the neighborhood will extend out of X.
Thanks!