- #1
LeBrad
- 214
- 0
I am familiar with the existence and uniqueness of solutions to the system
[tex] \dot{x} = f(x) [/tex]
requiring [tex]f(x)[/tex] to be Lipschitz continuous, but I am wondering what the conditions are for the system
[tex] \dot{q}(x) = f(x) [/tex].
It seems like I could make the same argument for there existing a unique [tex]q(x)[/tex] provided [tex]f(x)[/tex] is Lipschitz with respect to [tex]q(x)[/tex]. Then if [tex]q(x)[/tex] is invertible or one-to-one or whatever the proper math term is, then I can get a unique [tex]x[/tex]. Is that correct? If that's the case it looks like I'm just doing a nonlinear change of coordinates, showing uniqueness in that coordinate system, and then having a unique map back to the original coordinate system.
[tex] \dot{x} = f(x) [/tex]
requiring [tex]f(x)[/tex] to be Lipschitz continuous, but I am wondering what the conditions are for the system
[tex] \dot{q}(x) = f(x) [/tex].
It seems like I could make the same argument for there existing a unique [tex]q(x)[/tex] provided [tex]f(x)[/tex] is Lipschitz with respect to [tex]q(x)[/tex]. Then if [tex]q(x)[/tex] is invertible or one-to-one or whatever the proper math term is, then I can get a unique [tex]x[/tex]. Is that correct? If that's the case it looks like I'm just doing a nonlinear change of coordinates, showing uniqueness in that coordinate system, and then having a unique map back to the original coordinate system.