- #1
ice109
- 1,714
- 6
so i was showing my friend quantum tunneling in 1D i.e. the solution of the shroedinger for a finite potential barrier and i derived the transmission coefficient and showed that it's non-zero and all that.
at the end he asks me a completely sane question: how does the electron do it? and i responded to him that that is not the right question to be asking, that it is not within the scope of the theory and even more so not within the realm of physics. am i correct in making this statement?
i understand that this is akin to the orthodox interpretation and that's what i stressed to him; that the point of physics is not to answer such questions but produce useful things such as theories with testifiable predictions. i know a lot of people will agree with this latter statement but my question is whether that is the statement i should be making in response to this specific question?
forgive me if i don't respond for a while as i'll be away most of tomorrow. please still post.
at the end he asks me a completely sane question: how does the electron do it? and i responded to him that that is not the right question to be asking, that it is not within the scope of the theory and even more so not within the realm of physics. am i correct in making this statement?
i understand that this is akin to the orthodox interpretation and that's what i stressed to him; that the point of physics is not to answer such questions but produce useful things such as theories with testifiable predictions. i know a lot of people will agree with this latter statement but my question is whether that is the statement i should be making in response to this specific question?
forgive me if i don't respond for a while as i'll be away most of tomorrow. please still post.