- #1
racland
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Complex Analysis:
Find all solutions of:
(a) e^z = 1
(b) e^z = 1 + i
Find all solutions of:
(a) e^z = 1
(b) e^z = 1 + i
Actually y= [itex]\pi K[/itex], since [itex]sin(\pi)= 0[/itex] also. Now, what values can cos y have? And then what is ex?racland said:So far I got:
e^z = 1
I know e^z = e^x (cos y + i Sin y)
Then,
e^x cos y = 1
e^x sin y = 0
I know that for sin y = 0, y = 2 pi * K, where k is an integer.
After this step I'm stuck!
No, exsin y= 1 does NOT tell you that sin y= 1! You might try this: square each equation and add. That will get rid of y so you can find ex (you don't really need to find x itself).The second problem: e^z = 1 + i
e^x cos y = 1
e^x sin y = 1
I order for sin y = 1, y = pi/2. Now what...
The general solution for e^z = 1 is z = 2πni, where n is any integer. This means that any complex number z that satisfies the equation must be a multiple of 2πi.
One specific solution for e^z = 1 is z = 0, since e^0 = 1. Another example is z = 2πi, since e^(2πi) = cos(2π) + isin(2π) = 1.
To prove that z = 2πni is a solution for e^z = 1, we can use Euler's formula e^(ix) = cos(x) + isin(x). Plugging in z = 2πni, we get e^(2πni) = cos(2πn) + isin(2πn) = 1. Therefore, z = 2πni satisfies the equation e^z = 1.
Yes, there are infinite solutions for e^z = 1. In addition to z = 2πni, any complex number that can be expressed as z = 2πni + 2kπi, where k is any integer, is also a solution. This is because e^(2πni + 2kπi) = e^(2πni)e^(2kπi) = 1 * 1 = 1.
Yes, the solutions of e^z = 1 can be represented on the complex plane as a line passing through the origin with a slope of 2π. This line crosses through all the solutions, which are the points where the line intersects with the imaginary axis.