What can we say about the eigenvalues if ##L^2=I##?

In summary, the problem is asking for an example of an operator that satisfies the condition L^2 = I. There is no such thing as an operator that always satisfies this condition, but if L is linear and satisfies it, then the eigenvalues are +1 and -1.
  • #1
Karl Karlsson
104
12
Homework Statement
Let V be a vectorspace with scalars in ##\mathbb{R}##. Let L: V##\rightarrow##V be an operator.

If ##L(L( \vec x)) = \vec x## for all ##\vec x \in## V , what can we say about the eigenvalues of L? Give examples of V and L where different possibilities occur.
Relevant Equations
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This was a problem that came up in my linear algebra course so I assume the operation L is linear. Or maybe that could be derived from given information. I don't know how though. I don't quite understand how L could be represented by anything except a scalar multiplication if L: V##\rightarrow##V is to be satisfied.

Edit: Also isn't V just the same as ##\mathbb{R}## according to the definition of vector spaces if ##\vec v## is in V then ##c\cdot\vec v## must be in V also.

I can only come up with the specific examples of L and V:
If ##L(\vec x) = \vec x## then L has the eigenvalue 1

Thanks in advance!
 
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  • #2
There is nothing special about having an operator with ##L^2 = I##, as ##L^2 = I## satifies this in any vector space. There's no reason to conclude that ##V = \mathbb R##.

Note that, ##L^2 = I## does not imply that ##L## has eigenvalue ##1##. The question may want you to find an example of this.
 
  • #3
PeroK said:
There is nothing special about having an operator with ##L^2 = I##, as ##L^2 = I## satifies this in any vector space. There's no reason to conclude that ##V = \mathbb R##.

Note that, ##L^2 = I## does not imply that ##L## has eigenvalue ##1##. The question may want you to find an example of this.
Somebody else changed the title of this post to ##L^2 = 1## . No where in the problem is it stated that L is a linear operation but I assumed that it had to be. But okay if it is linear then ##L^2=I## but how could ##x^2-1## be a minimalpolynomial if the Function goes from the scalars to the scalars. L could be -1 is that what they were after?
 
  • #4
You misunderstand. This condition:

Karl Karlsson said:
If ##L(L( \vec x)) = \vec x## for all ##\vec x \in V ##

Is equivalent to ##L^2 = I##, where ##I## is the identity operator. Physicists sometimes write ##1## instead of ##I##, hence the title.
 
  • #5
Karl Karlsson said:
L could be -1 is that what they were after?

Yes, that's an example. Generally there will be other operators that satisfy the condition ##L^2 = I##.
 
  • #6
PeroK said:
Yes, that's an example. Generally there will be other operators that satisfy the condition ##L^2 = I##.
When you mean "generally" you don't mean in this particular case where both the input and output of the function is V, the scalars ?
 
  • #7
Karl Karlsson said:
When you mean "generally" you don't mean in this particular case where both the input and output of the function is V, the scalars ?
##V## is any real vector space. That's what "scalars in ##\mathbb R##" means. As opposed to a compolex vector space (with scalars in ##\mathbb C##) or any other field of scalars.
 
  • #8
PeroK said:
##V## is any real vector space. That's what "scalars in ##\mathbb R##" means. As opposed to a compolex vector space (with scalars in ##\mathbb C##) or any other field of scalars.
Is there any reason why they would write V instead of ##\mathbb R## ? Also L must be represented by a 1x1 matrix that is either 1 or -1, right? Do we know from given information that L is linear? x and y are vectors in V
##L(L(cx+dy)) =cx+dy=c*L(L(x))+d*L(L(y))## but this only shows that L(L(x)) is linear not that L is linear
 
  • #9
Karl Karlsson said:
Is there any reason why they would write V instead of ##\mathbb R## ?

I have no idea why you would assume that a general vector space ##V## is only the real numbers. ##V## could be ##\mathbb R^n## or a space of polynomials or matrices or functions, or vectors of any description.
 
  • #10
PeroK said:
I have no idea why you would assume that a general vector space ##V## is only the real numbers. ##V## could be ##\mathbb R^n## or a space of polynomials or matrices or functions, or vectors of any description.
Oh, maybe I misinterpreted the problem where it says "Let V be a vectorspace with scalars in ##\mathbb R##". I see now, then it makes sense. L could be represented as the linear transformation for a reflection. But still does it have to be linear?
 
  • #11
Karl Karlsson said:
Oh, maybe I misinterpreted the problem where it says "Let V be a vectorspace with scalars in ##\mathbb R##". I see now, then it makes sense. L could be represented as the linear transformation for a reflection. But still does it have to be linear?
A reflection is a linear transformation.

If you allow ##L## to be non-linear that will give you even more examples. I would assume they meant Linear Operator, but it doesn't really matter if all they want are some examples.
 
  • #12
I think you can prove that if L is linear and satisfies L(L(x))=x then the eigenvalues are +1 and -1.
 
  • #13
Karl Karlsson said:
Somebody else changed the title of this post to ##L^2 = 1## .
The title was very long before the change. I changed it from ##L^2 = 1## to ##L^2 = I## .
 

FAQ: What can we say about the eigenvalues if ##L^2=I##?

1. What is the significance of ##L^2=I## in eigenvalues?

##L^2=I## is a mathematical expression that represents the square of the operator L being equal to the identity operator I. In terms of eigenvalues, this means that the eigenvalues of L are equal to the eigenvalues of I, which are all equal to 1. This relationship can be useful in solving certain mathematical problems involving eigenvalues.

2. Does ##L^2=I## always hold true for any operator?

No, ##L^2=I## does not hold true for all operators. It only holds true for certain operators, such as the identity operator I and some Hermitian operators. For other operators, the relationship may not hold and the eigenvalues may be different from 1.

3. How does ##L^2=I## affect the eigenvectors of an operator?

When ##L^2=I## holds true, the eigenvectors of the operator L are also eigenvectors of the identity operator I. This means that the eigenvectors remain the same and only the eigenvalues are affected. The eigenvectors may change if the operator L is not Hermitian.

4. Can we make any conclusions about the eigenvalues of ##L## if ##L^2=I## holds true?

Yes, if ##L^2=I## holds true, we can conclude that the eigenvalues of L are all either 1 or -1. This is because the eigenvalues of the identity operator I are all equal to 1, and when squared, they will still be equal to 1. Therefore, the eigenvalues of L must also be 1 or -1.

5. How can we use ##L^2=I## to simplify calculations involving eigenvalues?

##L^2=I## can be used to simplify calculations involving eigenvalues by reducing the number of possible eigenvalues. For example, if we know that ##L^2=I## holds true, we can immediately conclude that the eigenvalues are either 1 or -1, without having to perform any other calculations. This can save time and effort in solving mathematical problems involving eigenvalues.

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