- #1
Ozgen Eren
- 51
- 1
I am having trouble with deducing the origin of Maxwell's Laws, especially Faraday's Law. Obviously some of the laws has to be originated by experiments and the rest should be mere deductions.
I would guess that Lorentz force law is the empirical information where we just named some terms as magnetic field following the experiments. There actually we can also deduce the EMF induced for a moving coil using Lorentz force. Then we get Faraday's law for non-changing magnetic field.
However how do we know that EMF will be induced if we vary B but have stationary coil? For example if I have a line of current and a coil nearby, EMF will be induced if I change the current even if I don't move the coil. Why is that? How do we support this apart from experiment? Can we derive it from Lorentz force law or did we just observed it?
(Saying "EMF is induced because flux changed over time" is not really an answer because it obviously is subject to the same question, why would the change in flux would lead to EMF. How did we know this)
I would guess that Lorentz force law is the empirical information where we just named some terms as magnetic field following the experiments. There actually we can also deduce the EMF induced for a moving coil using Lorentz force. Then we get Faraday's law for non-changing magnetic field.
However how do we know that EMF will be induced if we vary B but have stationary coil? For example if I have a line of current and a coil nearby, EMF will be induced if I change the current even if I don't move the coil. Why is that? How do we support this apart from experiment? Can we derive it from Lorentz force law or did we just observed it?
(Saying "EMF is induced because flux changed over time" is not really an answer because it obviously is subject to the same question, why would the change in flux would lead to EMF. How did we know this)