- #1
AlphaNumeric2
- 42
- 2
My dad came across this phrase in a book but neither of us are familiar with it. The statement is :
"Let [tex]M_{1}[/tex] and [tex]M_{2}[/tex] be matrices. [tex]N = M_{1}^{-1}M_{2}[/tex]. This matrix is [tex]M_{1}[/tex] symmetric and so it diagonalisable in [tex]\mathbb{R}^{2}[/tex]."
Does it just mean that [tex]M_{1}=M_{1}^{T}[/tex] or something else? Obviously searching for "Matrix, symmetric" doesn't help in this question...
"Let [tex]M_{1}[/tex] and [tex]M_{2}[/tex] be matrices. [tex]N = M_{1}^{-1}M_{2}[/tex]. This matrix is [tex]M_{1}[/tex] symmetric and so it diagonalisable in [tex]\mathbb{R}^{2}[/tex]."
Does it just mean that [tex]M_{1}=M_{1}^{T}[/tex] or something else? Obviously searching for "Matrix, symmetric" doesn't help in this question...