- #1
jinto26
- 2
- 0
My question is, if the determinism theorem is a good explanation, which covers all holes of the entanglement experiment. why are people still concluding its a 'spooky' superposition which is only determined by a measure and then somehow affects the other measurement.
What am I missing? Why is the more compelling, and more popular opinion not determinism?
It's the missing link in my understanding of this topic.
What am I missing? Why is the more compelling, and more popular opinion not determinism?
It's the missing link in my understanding of this topic.