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SamRoss
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- Trying to wrap my head around the definition of a candela.
I'm trying to wrap my head around the definition of a candela:
"The candela is the luminous intensity, in a given direction, of a source that emits monochromatic radiation of frequency 540×10^12 hertz and that has a radiant intensity in that direction of 1/683 watt per steradian."
I'm aware that this definition is from 1979 and there is a new definition which went into effect in 2019 but I would still prefer to work with the 1979 definition. Here's what I think I get so far...
- Watts are joules (a measure of energy) per second.
- Radiant intensity is watts per steradian - so joules per second per steradian.
- Luminous intensity is also measured in watts per steradian, but it does not take into account all energy (per second per steradian), only energy from light of frequencies which are visibile to the human eye and it is weighted based on how well the human eye responds to those frequencies. For this reason, the luminous intensity is found by taking the radiant intesity of a certain frequency and multiplying it by some weight (which could be zero if the frequency is out of the visible range). For light of more than one frequency, the weight would be replaced by a luminosity function which is integrated over all frequencies.
Procedure: So to define a candela, we start with a green light (specifically, light with a frequency of 540×10^12 hertz), then measure how much energy is coming out of that light per second per steradian.
Now, I know I must be wrong about something because with my "understanding" as I've outlined it above, the definition of a candela seems redundant. If radiant intensity and luminous intensity are both measured in watts per steradian, then why can't the definition just be "The candela is the radiant intensity of a source that emits monochromatic radiation of frequency 540×10^12 hertz" which happens to be 1/683 watt per steradian. I am also implicitly assuming here that since the frequency of light used in the definition is a frequency that is perceived very well by the human eye, the radiant intensity and luminous intensity should be the same (which is why I used "radiant intensity" in my definition and did not mention multiplying this by the luminosity function in my procedure). Is that also incorrect?
"The candela is the luminous intensity, in a given direction, of a source that emits monochromatic radiation of frequency 540×10^12 hertz and that has a radiant intensity in that direction of 1/683 watt per steradian."
I'm aware that this definition is from 1979 and there is a new definition which went into effect in 2019 but I would still prefer to work with the 1979 definition. Here's what I think I get so far...
- Watts are joules (a measure of energy) per second.
- Radiant intensity is watts per steradian - so joules per second per steradian.
- Luminous intensity is also measured in watts per steradian, but it does not take into account all energy (per second per steradian), only energy from light of frequencies which are visibile to the human eye and it is weighted based on how well the human eye responds to those frequencies. For this reason, the luminous intensity is found by taking the radiant intesity of a certain frequency and multiplying it by some weight (which could be zero if the frequency is out of the visible range). For light of more than one frequency, the weight would be replaced by a luminosity function which is integrated over all frequencies.
Procedure: So to define a candela, we start with a green light (specifically, light with a frequency of 540×10^12 hertz), then measure how much energy is coming out of that light per second per steradian.
Now, I know I must be wrong about something because with my "understanding" as I've outlined it above, the definition of a candela seems redundant. If radiant intensity and luminous intensity are both measured in watts per steradian, then why can't the definition just be "The candela is the radiant intensity of a source that emits monochromatic radiation of frequency 540×10^12 hertz" which happens to be 1/683 watt per steradian. I am also implicitly assuming here that since the frequency of light used in the definition is a frequency that is perceived very well by the human eye, the radiant intensity and luminous intensity should be the same (which is why I used "radiant intensity" in my definition and did not mention multiplying this by the luminosity function in my procedure). Is that also incorrect?
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