- #1
snoopies622
- 846
- 28
Wikipedia's derivation of the Schrodinger equation apparently includes the premise that the energy of a particle is the product of Planck's constant and the particle's frequency.
E = hf
I have seen this equation before for photons but when applied to matter, I'm confused. If we assume the following
[tex] E = \frac {p^2}{2m} [/tex]
[tex] \lambda = \frac {h}{p} [/tex]
[tex] p = mv [/tex]
[tex] \lambda f = v [/tex]
where
E = energy
p = momentum
m = mass
λ = wavelength
f = frequency
v = velocity
simple algebraic manipulation yields E = hf/2 , not hf. The only relationship not mentioned in the derivation is the λf = v, but how could that not be true for a wave of any kind?
E = hf
I have seen this equation before for photons but when applied to matter, I'm confused. If we assume the following
[tex] E = \frac {p^2}{2m} [/tex]
[tex] \lambda = \frac {h}{p} [/tex]
[tex] p = mv [/tex]
[tex] \lambda f = v [/tex]
where
E = energy
p = momentum
m = mass
λ = wavelength
f = frequency
v = velocity
simple algebraic manipulation yields E = hf/2 , not hf. The only relationship not mentioned in the derivation is the λf = v, but how could that not be true for a wave of any kind?