- #1
JinM
- 66
- 0
I know that logarithms to the base 1 is undefined, due to the reason that:
[itex]\log_1{x} = \frac{\log_a{x}}{\log_a{1}}[/itex]
And this leads to divison by zero, which is undefined.
There was a question in one of my textbooks that asked describe the graph that results if [itex]y = \log_1{x}[/itex]. Is such a graph even possible?
If I switch this logarithm to exponential form I would get:
[itex]1^y = x[/itex]
Now, is it possible that the graph could be y = 1 and x = 1? Since [itex]1^y = x^1[/itex], [itex]y = 1[/itex] and [itex]x = 1[/itex].
Or is it the point of intersection of these two lines? If not, what is it?
Thanks.
[itex]\log_1{x} = \frac{\log_a{x}}{\log_a{1}}[/itex]
And this leads to divison by zero, which is undefined.
There was a question in one of my textbooks that asked describe the graph that results if [itex]y = \log_1{x}[/itex]. Is such a graph even possible?
If I switch this logarithm to exponential form I would get:
[itex]1^y = x[/itex]
Now, is it possible that the graph could be y = 1 and x = 1? Since [itex]1^y = x^1[/itex], [itex]y = 1[/itex] and [itex]x = 1[/itex].
Or is it the point of intersection of these two lines? If not, what is it?
Thanks.
Last edited: