- #1
kliker
- 104
- 0
in the exponential distribution we know that
μ = 1/λ and σ = 1/λ^2
also f(x) = λ*e^-λχ
how can i find the mean (μ) using integrals?
generally what we do is this
we integrate from a point to another the x*f(x) (EX)
And the variance is EX^2-(EX)^2
but here we have no points, so how can i prove that the mean is 1/λ?
μ = 1/λ and σ = 1/λ^2
also f(x) = λ*e^-λχ
how can i find the mean (μ) using integrals?
generally what we do is this
we integrate from a point to another the x*f(x) (EX)
And the variance is EX^2-(EX)^2
but here we have no points, so how can i prove that the mean is 1/λ?