- #1
rockytriton
- 26
- 0
I have a book that has the following integral:
[tex]6\int_\frac{-1}{2}^\frac{1}{2}\int_\frac{-1}{2}^\frac{1}{2}\frac{1}{r^2}a_r\cdot a_z dx dy[/tex]
This integral gets converted to:
[tex]3\int_\frac{-1}{2}^\frac{1}{2}\int_\frac{-1}{2}^\frac{1}{2}\frac{dx dy}{(x^2 + y^2 + 1/4)^\frac{3}{2}}[/tex]
(z = 1/2 by the way...)
I understand how it got to that point, but I'm having trouble understanding how it gets to this integral, I guess I don't understand the integration involved:
[tex]3\int_\frac{-1}{2}^\frac{1}{2}(\frac{x}{(y^2 + \frac{1}{4})(x^2 + y^2 + 1/4)^\frac{1}{2}})\|_\frac{-1}{2}^\frac{1}{2}dy[/tex]
can someone explain how it gets to there?
[tex]6\int_\frac{-1}{2}^\frac{1}{2}\int_\frac{-1}{2}^\frac{1}{2}\frac{1}{r^2}a_r\cdot a_z dx dy[/tex]
This integral gets converted to:
[tex]3\int_\frac{-1}{2}^\frac{1}{2}\int_\frac{-1}{2}^\frac{1}{2}\frac{dx dy}{(x^2 + y^2 + 1/4)^\frac{3}{2}}[/tex]
(z = 1/2 by the way...)
I understand how it got to that point, but I'm having trouble understanding how it gets to this integral, I guess I don't understand the integration involved:
[tex]3\int_\frac{-1}{2}^\frac{1}{2}(\frac{x}{(y^2 + \frac{1}{4})(x^2 + y^2 + 1/4)^\frac{1}{2}})\|_\frac{-1}{2}^\frac{1}{2}dy[/tex]
can someone explain how it gets to there?