What is the Maximum Induced emf of a Rotating Loop?

In summary, a rectangular loop of wire with an area A is placed perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field B and spun around one of its sides at a frequency f. The maximum induced emf is 2(pi)BAf, as derived from Faraday's law and Gauss' law. A systematic approach to the problem involves using the wave function y(x,t)=y_m\sin{(kx-\omega t)} and relating A to an angle, which leads to the desired result.
  • #1
mbrmbrg
496
2

Homework Statement



A rectangular loop of wire has area A. It is placed perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field B and then spun around one of its sides at frequency f. The maximum induced emf is:
  • BAf
  • BAf
  • 4(pi)BAf
  • 2(pi)BAf
  • 2BAf

Note: No, it's not my mistake that BAf appears as an option twice.
The correct answer (verified by WebAssign) is 2(pi)BAf.

Homework Equations



[tex]\varepsilon=-\frac{d\phi_B}{dt}[/tex]

[tex]d\phi_B=\vec{B}\cdot \vec{A}[/tex]

The Attempt at a Solution



Looking for maximum emf, so the dot product B*A simplifies to BA.
The crux of the problem will be finding out how A varies with time.
Frequency is given, and A will be very closely related to frequency.

And then I didn't know where to go from there, so I guessed, and got lucky.

Help with a systematic approach to this problem, please?
 
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  • #2
Can you write A in terms of an angle? Think of the standard wave function... :wink:
 
  • #3
Basic wave function: [tex]y(x,t)=y_m\sin{(kx-\omega t)}[/tex]

  • y(x,t) will be the area perpindicular to the magnetic field at a given time
  • y_m=amplitude=actual area of the loop=A
  • [tex]kx-\omega t[/tex] is the angle that the loop makes with the magnetic field... I think...
I feel like an idiot:cry:
I've also been doing nothing but physics for a couple of days, please excuse me.
:the sort of emoticon that looks all normal then spontaneously explodes, sending tiny bits of itself all over the screen, but it explodes in a sphere, of course, because space is isotropic:
 
Last edited:
  • #4
mbrmbrg said:
Basic wave function: [tex]y(x,t)=y_m\sin{(kx-\omega t)}[/tex]

  • y(x,t) will be the area perpindicular to the magnetic field at a given time
  • y_m=amplitude=actual area of the loop=A
  • [tex]kx-\omega t[/tex] is the angle that the loop makes with the magnetic field... I think...
I feel like an idiot:cry:
I've also been doing nothing but physics for a couple of days, please excuse me.
:the sort of emoticon that looks all normal then spontaneously explodes, sending tiny bits of itself all over the screen, but it explodes in a sphere, of course, because space is isotropic:
I know the feeling, I've just done a QM exam today . But don't despair, your very close. Perhaps my hint of the wave function was a little unfair. Since you've already posted your homework I don't mind showing you this derivation. Okay, so you know Gauss' law;

[tex]\Phi_B = \int \vec{B}\cdot d\vec{A}[/tex]

Now, recall the definition of the dot product, namely [itex]\vec{A}\cdot\vec{B} = |A||B|\cos\theta[/itex] thus for a coil of area A and N loops we can write;

[tex]\Phi_B = \int \vec{B}\cdot d\vec{A} = BAN\cos\theta[/tex]

Now, from Faraday's law;

[tex]\xi = -\frac{d\Phi_B}{dt} = -\frac{d}{dt}\left( BAN\cos\theta \right)[/tex]

Recall that [itex]\omega = \theta/t \Rightarrow \theta = \omega t[/itex]; hence,

[tex]\xi = -\frac{d}{dt}\left( BAN\cos\omega t \right)[/tex]

[tex]\xi = BAN\omega\sin\omega t[/tex]

Since [itex]\omega = 2\pi f[/itex] we arrive at our desired result;

[tex]\xi = 2BAN\pi f\sin(2\pi f t)[/tex]

I hope this helps. Don't be to hard on yourself, if you've been doing nothing but physics lately, your probably very tired and very bored of physics. Try forgetting about physics for a few hours and doing something different, you'll probably find you'll come back refreshed :smile:
 
  • #5
No, it wasn't unfair at all. If anything, it was a leetle too fair o:)

Thank you! Thank you! Thank you!
I followed what you said, but deriving it myself would have been slow and tortuous work.

THAT WEARY FEELING
by Piet Hein

Do you know that weary feeling
when your mind is strangely strangled
and your head is like a ball of wool
that's very, very tangled;
and the tempo of your thinking
must be lenient and mild,
as though you were explaining
to a very little child.
 
  • #6
mbrmbrg said:
Thank you! Thank you! Thank you!
I followed what you said, but deriving it myself would have been slow and tortuous work.
It was my pleasure. Don't worry about the derivation, its just practise :smile:
 

FAQ: What is the Maximum Induced emf of a Rotating Loop?

What is the maximum emf of a rotating loop?

The maximum emf of a rotating loop is equal to the product of the angular velocity of the loop and the magnetic flux through the loop, multiplied by the number of turns in the loop.

What factors affect the maximum emf of a rotating loop?

The maximum emf of a rotating loop is affected by the angular velocity of the loop, the magnetic field strength, the area of the loop, and the number of turns in the loop.

How is the maximum emf of a rotating loop calculated?

The maximum emf of a rotating loop can be calculated using the equation E = ωBAcosθ, where E is the emf, ω is the angular velocity, B is the magnetic field strength, A is the area of the loop, and θ is the angle between the magnetic field and the normal to the loop.

What is the relationship between the maximum emf and the angular velocity of a rotating loop?

The maximum emf of a rotating loop is directly proportional to the angular velocity of the loop. This means that as the angular velocity increases, the maximum emf also increases.

Can the maximum emf of a rotating loop be greater than the applied magnetic field?

Yes, the maximum emf of a rotating loop can be greater than the applied magnetic field. This is because the maximum emf also depends on the area and number of turns in the loop, not just the strength of the magnetic field.

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