What is the meaning of \frac{1}{A}\left|\phi\rangle in quantum mechanics?

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In summary, the spectral theorem states that for an operator A with a spectrum from 0 to infinity, it is possible to find a basis in the Hilbert space where each basis state corresponds to a particular value in the spectrum.
  • #1
rgoerke
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I am led to believe (because it is in a paper I am reading) that
[tex] \frac{1}{H - z} \left|\phi\rangle = \frac{1}{E - z}\left|\phi\rangle[/tex]
where [tex]H[/tex] is the hamiltonian, [tex]\left|\phi\rangle[/tex] is an energy eigenstate with energy [tex]E[/tex], and [tex]z[/tex] is a complex variable.
In attempting to understand this expression, I have realized I do not know what is meant by
[tex]\frac{1}{A}\left|\phi\rangle[/tex]
for some operator [tex]A[/tex]. Is this the same thing as the inverse of A?

Thanks.
 
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  • #2
rgoerke said:
I am led to believe (because it is in a paper I am reading) that
[tex] \frac{1}{H - z} \left|\phi\rangle = \frac{1}{E - z}\left|\phi\rangle[/tex]
where [tex]H[/tex] is the hamiltonian, [tex]\left|\phi\rangle[/tex] is an energy eigenstate with energy [tex]E[/tex], and [tex]z[/tex] is a complex variable.
In attempting to understand this expression, I have realized I do not know what is meant by
[tex]\frac{1}{A}\left|\phi\rangle[/tex]
for some operator [tex]A[/tex].

Welcome to the wonderful world of the spectral theorem(s)! :-)

The basic idea is this: let A is a self-adjoint operator on a Hilbert space,
and suppose it has a (continuous) spectrum from 0 to infinity.
Then it is possible to find a basis in the Hilbert space where each basis
state corresponds to a particular value in the spectrum, and in fact
a complex-analytic function of A, written "f(A)", can be expressed as

[tex]
f(A) ~\leftrightarrow~ \int_0^\infty\! dk\; f(k) \; |k\rangle\langle k|
[/tex]

where each |k> is one of the eigenstates of A, with eigenvalue k.
(The set of all such k is called the "spectrum" of A.)

In your case, we're dealing with the Hamiltonian operator H, and your
particular complex-analytic function is f(H) := 1/(H-z), so we can
express it as

[tex]
\frac{1}{H - z} ~\leftrightarrow~ \int_0^\infty\! dk\; \frac{ |k\rangle\langle k|}{k - z}
[/tex]

where now each |k>is an eigenstate of H with eigenvalue k, and these states are
"normalized" according to [itex]\langle k|k'\rangle = \delta(k - k')[/itex].

Now apply this to your [itex]|\phi\rangle[/itex], but first let's rewrite [itex]|\phi\rangle[/itex]
as [itex]|E\rangle[/itex], since this is a more helpful notation. This is ok because
[itex]|\phi\rangle[/itex] is (by definition) the eigenstate of H with eigenvalue E. We get:

[tex]
\int_0^\infty\! dk\; \frac{ |k\rangle\langle k|}{k - z} ~ |E\rangle
~=~ \int_0^\infty\! dk\; \frac{ |k\rangle}{k - z} ~ \delta(k - E)
~=~ \frac{1}{E - z} \; |E\rangle
[/tex]

To understand the spectral theorem(s) in more detail, it's probably best
to start with the finite-dimensional matrix versions in linear algebra
textbooks, and then progress to the functional-analytic versions,
then to the versions for rigged Hilbert space which is what I've been
using above. Or, for a more QM-flavored overview, try Ballentine ch1,
in particular sections 1.3 and 1.4.

HTH.
 
Last edited:
  • #3
While it's good to know there's a generality, this particular case can be handled by lower-powered means -- so long as z ranges over the non-eigenvalues* of H, the operator (H-z) has a multiplicative inverse. 1/(H-z) is the unique operator that you can substitute for T in
[tex]T \left( (H-z) | \psi \rangle \right) = | \psi \rangle[/tex]​
which makes the equation hold for all kets.

If you restrict to the space generated by [itex]|\phi\rangle[/itex], then z merely has to avoid the value E. (Because, on this subspace, E is the only eigenvalue of H)

*: Really, I mean the points that aren't in the spectrum. But I think your H has a discrete spectrum... and so they are all eigenvalues too.
 
  • #4
Thanks to both of you! That's a big help.
 

FAQ: What is the meaning of \frac{1}{A}\left|\phi\rangle in quantum mechanics?

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