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The term "manifest locality" keeps being used, eg. in talks by Cachazo http://pirsa.org/10080013/ and Arkani-Hamed http://online.kitp.ucsb.edu/online/bblunch/arkanihamed/ .
In Hamiltonian QFT, "locality" means Lorentz invariance, and is implemented by requiring that spacelike field operators commute.
Is "manifest locality" in the Lagrangian formalism the same thing? If so, I guess it means that (i) the Lagrangian consists of sums and products of fields at the same place and time, and (ii) the action is Lorentz covariant? (Seems maybe not, since they always talk about "manifest locality" of the Feynman diagrams - what does that mean?)
In Hamiltonian QFT, "locality" means Lorentz invariance, and is implemented by requiring that spacelike field operators commute.
Is "manifest locality" in the Lagrangian formalism the same thing? If so, I guess it means that (i) the Lagrangian consists of sums and products of fields at the same place and time, and (ii) the action is Lorentz covariant? (Seems maybe not, since they always talk about "manifest locality" of the Feynman diagrams - what does that mean?)