- #1
Son Goku
- 113
- 21
I've read on a few websites, as well as having heard from my professors that the relation between QM and QFT is that QM is the (0+1) approximation of QFT.
Does mean that QM ignores the spatial degrees of freedom of field, or is there something else to it, or have I got it all completely wrong.
Basically I'm asking in what situations does QFT reduce to QM.
Does mean that QM ignores the spatial degrees of freedom of field, or is there something else to it, or have I got it all completely wrong.
Basically I'm asking in what situations does QFT reduce to QM.