What is the time evolution of the wave function?

  • Thread starter Panic Attack
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In summary, the wavefunct is φ(x, t = 0) = (1/(3^1/2))U_2(x) + ((2/3)^1/2)U_3(x) and as time progresses it will look something like this: φ(x, t = L) = (1/(3^1/2))U_2(x) + ((2/3)^1/2)U_3(x)
  • #1
Panic Attack
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Ok, I have a 1-D box confined at at x = 0 and x = L. So, points between 0 and L distances are the continuum state and otherwise distances be discontinous.
a) I need to find the egien functs: Un(x) and related egien values: En ... n are the excited levels represented as postive whole numbers.

The wave funct is: φ(x, t = 0) = (1/(3^1/2))U_2(x) + ((2/3)^1/2)U_3(x)


b) As time progresses, what will the function look like?
c) What is the prob. density (φ squared) and P(x,t) = total probability.


What I have so far...

(-(h/2pi)^2)/2m * (d^2/dx^2)Psi(x) = E*Psi(x)
Psi(x)|x=0 = Asin(0) + Bcos(0) = B = 0 ?
Psi(x)|x=L = Asin(kL) + Bcos(kL) = 0 ?

[0 0; sin(kL) cos(kL)] *[A;B] = [0 0]

set KnL/2 = n*pi
En = (h/2pi)^2 *k^2]/2m
= [(h/2pi)^2] /2m * (2n*pi/L)
 
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  • #2
https://www.physicsforums.com/attachments/21538

Nobody wants to help Adam...
 
  • #3
Hi Panic_Attack!

In the second boundary condition you made a mistake, because you
already know that B=0, You really have:

[tex]\Psi(x=L) = ASin(kL) = 0 [/tex]

And this condition say to you:

[tex] kL = n\pi [/tex]

where

[tex] k^{2}\equiv\frac{2mE}{\hbar^{2}} [/tex]

Then you got [tex]E_{n}[/tex]

To find the wave function you don't know A yet, but try to normalize the wave function.

On (b) part.. Have you heard about the Evolution Operator? Maybe this simplify your problem.

(Sorry my english sucks)
 
Last edited:
  • #4
criz.corral said:
Hi Panic_Attack!

In the second boundary condition you made a mistake, because you
already know that B=0, You really have:

[tex]\Psi(x=L) = ASin(kL) = 0 [/tex]

And this condition say to you:

[tex] kL = n\pi [/tex]

where

[tex] k^{2}\equiv\frac{2mE}{\hbar^{2}} [/tex]

Then you got [tex]E_{n}[/tex]

To find the wave function you don't know A yet, but try to normalize the wave function.

On (b) part.. Have you heard about the Evolution Operator? Maybe this simplify your problem.

(Sorry my english sucks)

Thanks so much for replying to my question. Fortunately I was able to find an answer without using the evolution operator. I basically went through solving with the schrodinger equation with setting up the solutions of the differential equations based on the regions. And had the same K value you got too. Then I normalised the wave function with it squared over the integral and found A too... I really apreciate your help, sorry I couldn't reply sooner.

Your english sounds better than mine! lol
 

FAQ: What is the time evolution of the wave function?

What is a 1-D infinite potential well?

A 1-D infinite potential well is a theoretical construct in quantum mechanics used to model a particle confined to a one-dimensional region with infinitely high potential barriers on either side. This creates a finite region in which the particle can exist, known as the "well".

How does a particle behave in a 1-D infinite potential well?

In a 1-D infinite potential well, the particle behaves as a standing wave, meaning it can only exist at certain energy levels or "quantum states". These states are determined by the dimensions of the well and the mass of the particle.

What is the significance of the 1-D infinite potential well in quantum mechanics?

The 1-D infinite potential well is a fundamental concept in quantum mechanics that helps us understand the behavior of particles at the quantum level. It also serves as a basis for more complex systems and can be used to explain phenomena such as particle confinement and quantum tunneling.

What are some real-world applications of the 1-D infinite potential well?

The 1-D infinite potential well has been used to model the behavior of electrons in a solid-state device, such as a quantum dot or a transistor. It is also relevant in the study of atomic and molecular systems, as well as in the design of photonic devices.

Are there any limitations to the 1-D infinite potential well model?

Yes, the 1-D infinite potential well is a simplified model and does not accurately reflect the behavior of particles in all situations. For example, it does not take into account the effects of external forces or interactions between particles. It is best used as a starting point for understanding more complex systems.

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