- #1
bham10246
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Homework Statement
Let [itex]f_n, f: [0,1]\rightarrow \mathbb{R}[/itex], and [itex]f_n(x)\rightarrow f(x)[/itex] for each [itex]x \in [0,1][/itex].
I need to show the following two things:
a. [itex]T_0^1(f)\leq \lim\inf_{n\rightarrow \infty} T_0^1(f_n)[/itex], and
b. if each [itex]f_n[/itex] is absolutely continuous and [itex]T_0^1(f_n)\leq 1[/itex] for each [itex]n[/itex], then [itex]T_0^1(f) = \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} T_0^1(f_n)[/itex].
Homework Equations
We denote [itex]T_0^1(f)[/itex] as the total variation of f on [itex][0,1][/itex].
The Attempt at a Solution
a.
If [itex]f_n[/itex] is not of bounded variation, then [itex]T_0^1(f_n)=\infty[/itex] and we're done.
So assume [itex]f_n[/itex] is of bounded variation. Then since [itex]f_n(x) \rightarrow f(x)[/itex] for each x, then for a partition [itex]0=t_0 < t_1 < ... < t_N= 1 [/itex],
[itex] |f_n(t_j)-f_n(t_{j-1})| \rightarrow |f(t_j)-f(t_{j-1})| [/itex].
So [itex] \sum_j|f_n(t_j)-f_n(t_{j-1})| \rightarrow \sum_j |f(t_j)-f(t_{j-1})| [/itex].
Take the sup from both sides and so we have [itex]T_0^1(f_n)\rightarrow T_0^1(f)[/itex].
I would like to use Fatou's at some point but I would like some hints on how to change the idea of total variation into a sequence of nonnegative measurable functions...