- #36
lockecole
- 26
- 0
IClown's reply
I posted my question at Experts-Exchange.com's Philosophy and Religion sub-topic area of the "Miscellaneous" topic area. Take a look at IClown's reply. He gave me an answer that was not a flame. Can you too?
"There is an excellent socratic argument regarding this very question in the Apology. You'll find Socrates facing a death sentece declaring that no man could do harm to a better man. His argument goes something like this:
1) By harming a good man, you prevent good;
2) Once good is prevented, evil will prevail;
3) With evil prevailing, evil will fall upon the evil doers;
4) Evil doers will suffer;
Thus it is harmful to evil men to do evil.
Therefore, good wins."
I posted my question at Experts-Exchange.com's Philosophy and Religion sub-topic area of the "Miscellaneous" topic area. Take a look at IClown's reply. He gave me an answer that was not a flame. Can you too?
"There is an excellent socratic argument regarding this very question in the Apology. You'll find Socrates facing a death sentece declaring that no man could do harm to a better man. His argument goes something like this:
1) By harming a good man, you prevent good;
2) Once good is prevented, evil will prevail;
3) With evil prevailing, evil will fall upon the evil doers;
4) Evil doers will suffer;
Thus it is harmful to evil men to do evil.
Therefore, good wins."