- #1
etotheipi
For instance, in the case of the infinite square well, the wavelength of the wavefunction is [itex]\frac{2L}{n}[/itex]. This also turns out to be the De Broglie wavelength, and and we can find the possible energies directly from the Schrodinger equation, or by using the De Broglie relations.
However, if the wavefunction is a measure of probability amplitude, and the De Broglie wavelength is a measure of the particle's momentum, why are they equal? And when are the not equal - am I missing something more fundamental here? Thank you!
However, if the wavefunction is a measure of probability amplitude, and the De Broglie wavelength is a measure of the particle's momentum, why are they equal? And when are the not equal - am I missing something more fundamental here? Thank you!