- #1
SiennaTheGr8
- 497
- 195
- TL;DR Summary
- I understand that the Hodge dual takes "true" forms to pseudo-forms, and vice versa. I'm confused about how this works with basis forms; how can we tell which basis forms are pseudo-tensors?
My understanding is that the Hodge dual of a pseudo-form is always a "true" pseudo-form, and vice versa. However, I'm a little confused about how this applies to basis-forms in general.
I believe I understand how it works for the ##0##-form case: the basis ##0##-form is the scalar ##1## (obviously a true tensor), and its Hodge dual is the basis ##n##-form (for an ##n##-dimensional manifold), which then must be a pseudo-tensor (equal to the volume form in an orthonormal system, if I'm not mistaken).
But what about for other situations? For example, here is an excerpt from Frankel's The Geometry of Physics (3rd edition, p. 363), where the context is ##4##-dimensional Minkowski spacetime:
What confuses me is: if ##*(dx^2 \wedge dx^3) = dt \wedge dx^1##, then either ##dx^2 \wedge dx^3## or its Hodge dual ##dt \wedge dx^1##—both of which are basis ##2##-forms—must be a pseudo-form, and the other must be a true tensor. How would one know which is which? And this is of course just an example; my question is more general. I feel that something simple is going right over my head!
I believe I understand how it works for the ##0##-form case: the basis ##0##-form is the scalar ##1## (obviously a true tensor), and its Hodge dual is the basis ##n##-form (for an ##n##-dimensional manifold), which then must be a pseudo-tensor (equal to the volume form in an orthonormal system, if I'm not mistaken).
But what about for other situations? For example, here is an excerpt from Frankel's The Geometry of Physics (3rd edition, p. 363), where the context is ##4##-dimensional Minkowski spacetime:
##*## takes ##p##-forms into pseudo (##4 - p##)-forms. [...] Since the coordinates are orthonormal and ##\sqrt{ | g | } = 1##, we can probably avoid the use of (14.3) [Frankel's general definition for the Hodge dual]. ##*(dx^2 \wedge dx^3)## has the property that ##(dx^2 \wedge dx^3) \wedge *(dx^2 \wedge dx^3) = \| dx^2 \wedge dx^3 \|^2 \, dt \wedge dx^1 \wedge dx^2 \wedge dx^3##. Since the ##dx^\alpha## are orthonormal and ##\| dx^\alpha \|^2 \, = +1## for ##\alpha = 1, 2, 3##, we see that ##\| dx^2 \wedge dx^3 \|^2 \, = \| dx^2 \|^2 \, \| dx^3 \|^2 \, = +1##, and so ##*(dx^2 \wedge dx^3) = dt \wedge dx^1##.
What confuses me is: if ##*(dx^2 \wedge dx^3) = dt \wedge dx^1##, then either ##dx^2 \wedge dx^3## or its Hodge dual ##dt \wedge dx^1##—both of which are basis ##2##-forms—must be a pseudo-form, and the other must be a true tensor. How would one know which is which? And this is of course just an example; my question is more general. I feel that something simple is going right over my head!