- #1
lucas_
- 413
- 23
Why is that when there is lorentz invariance. Large 3-momentum corresponds to a large energy. And if there was no lorentz invariance. Large 3-momentum does not necessarily need to correspond to a large energy?
What has Lorentz invariance got to do with 3-momentum having large energy or not?
What has Lorentz invariance got to do with 3-momentum having large energy or not?