- #1
snejburg
- 3
- 0
Hey,
I have a question concerning eigenfrequencies:
Let us assume we examine a beam that is fixed at one end and free at the other end. It is possible to get an analytical solution in form of a unlimtied series: sum_i=1..infinity eigenfunction(i)*exp(i*eigenfrequencie(i)*t). (something close to that).
My question is first: Why do usually the first eigenfunctions have the highest amplitudes?
and second: Why is it in technical devices most important to supress the first eigenfrequencies?
I know that it has something to do with the higher energy of the higher modes but why do they have higher energy? And why is it apparently not dangerous to excite higher eigenfrequencies?
Thanks a lot for your help
I have a question concerning eigenfrequencies:
Let us assume we examine a beam that is fixed at one end and free at the other end. It is possible to get an analytical solution in form of a unlimtied series: sum_i=1..infinity eigenfunction(i)*exp(i*eigenfrequencie(i)*t). (something close to that).
My question is first: Why do usually the first eigenfunctions have the highest amplitudes?
and second: Why is it in technical devices most important to supress the first eigenfrequencies?
I know that it has something to do with the higher energy of the higher modes but why do they have higher energy? And why is it apparently not dangerous to excite higher eigenfrequencies?
Thanks a lot for your help