- #1
jeremyfiennes
- 323
- 17
QM declares reality to be inherently indeterminate. Another hypothesis is that it is in fact determinate, but due to measurement uncertainty appears to be indeterminate. Why did Bohr, Heisenberg & Co adopt the first hypothesis and reject the equally valid second, when the two are experimentally indistinguishable? Bell's theorem, etc, did not exist at that time.