Why Do Functions \(X + UY\) and \(X - UY\) Have Zeroes Only at \(t = \pm 1\)?

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In summary, the proof of the lemma states that the solutions of the Pell equation in an integral domain of characteristic zero can be expressed as two sequences of polynomials. The proof involves parametrizing the equation and showing that the functions $X+UY$ and $X-UY$ have poles only at $t=\pm 1$. This is crucial in proving the lemma by showing that $X+UY=c\left ( \frac{t+1}{t-1}\right )^m=c(T+U)^m$ and $X-UY=c(T-U)^m$. However, it is not entirely clear why $X\pm UY$ have poles only at $t=\pm 1$ and it is possible
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mathmari
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Hey! :eek:

I am reading the proof of the following lemma but I got stuck at some points... Let $R$ be any integral domain of characteristic zero.

We consider the Pell equation $$X^2-(T^2-1)Y^2=1 \tag 1$$ over $R[T]$.

Let $U$ be an element in the algebraic closure of $R[T]$ satisfying $$U^2=T^2-1 \tag 2$$

Define two sequences $X_n, Y_n, n=0, 1, 2, \dots$, of polynomials in $\mathbb{Z}[T]$, by setting $$X_n+UY_n=(T+U)^n\tag 3$$

Lemma.

The solutions of $(1)$ in $R[T]$ are given precisely by $$X=\pm X_n, Y=\pm Y_n, n=0, 1, 2, \dots$$

Proof.

$(1)$ is equivalent too $$(X-UY)(X+UY)=1 \tag 4$$

From $(3)$ and $(2)$ follows $$X_n-UY_n=(T-U)^n=(T+U)^{-n}$$

Hence the $X_n, Y_n$ are solutions of $(1)$.

Conversely, suppose $X$ and $Y$ in $R[T]$ satisfy $(1)$.

Let us parametrise the curve $(2)$ by $$T=\frac{t^2+1}{t^2-1}\ \ ,\ \ U=\frac{2t}{t^2-1}$$

The rational functions $X+UY$ and $X-UY$ in $t$ have poles only at $t=\pm 1$.

Moreover $(4)$ implies they have zeroes only at $t=\pm 1$.

Hence $$X+UY=c\left ( \frac{t+1}{t-1}\right )^m=c(T+U)^m, c \in R, m \in \mathbb{Z}$$

Thus also $X-UY=c(T-U)^m$.

But substistuting this in $(4)$ gives $c^2=1$, which proves the lemma by $(3)$.

Could you explain to me the following part of the proof?
Moreover $(4)$ implies they have zeroes only at $t=\pm 1$.

Hence $$X+UY=c\left ( \frac{t+1}{t-1}\right )^m=c(T+U)^m, c \in R, m\in \mathbb{Z}$$

Thus also $X-UY=c(T-U)^m$.

But substistuting this in $(4)$ gives $c^2=1$, which proves the lemma by $(3)$.

Why do we have from the relation $(4)$ that the functions $X+UY$ and $X-UY$ have zeroes only at $t=\pm 1$ ?

How do we get to the equation $X+UY=c\left ( \frac{t+1}{t-1}\right )^m=c(T+U)^m$ ? How does $c$ appear? 11
 
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mathmari said:
Why do we have from the relation $(4)$ that the functions $X+UY$ and $X-UY$ have zeroes only at $t=\pm 1$ ?

Ok, so here's $(4)$:
$$(X-UY)(X+UY)=1.$$
Suppose $X-UY$ had a pole at $t=1$. That means it blows up at $t=1$. What's the only way the entire expression $(X-UY)(X+UY)$ could equal $1$ when $t=1$?

What's puzzling me, though, is that it's not entirely obvious to me (moving back a bit in the proof) why, if $T$ and $U$ have poles only at $t=\pm 1$, which is clear, that $(X\pm UY)$ should have poles only at $t=\pm 1$. *thinking out print here* If we examine $X^2-U^2Y^2=1$, and plug in the parametrization, we get
$$X^2-\frac{4t^2}{\left(t^2-1\right)^2} \, Y^2=1.$$
In order for this equation to hold, $Y$ would simply have to have a zero at $t=\pm 1$. Otherwise, we would have an $\infty-\infty$ situation, which is undefined. Because of this fact, it's not clear to me that $X\pm UY$ have poles at all. I'm not sure I buy this proof! It looks to me like the author is hammering $(X-UY)(X+UY)=1$ for all it's worth, but ignoring $X^2-U^2Y^2=1$ and its implications for poles and zeros.
 

FAQ: Why Do Functions \(X + UY\) and \(X - UY\) Have Zeroes Only at \(t = \pm 1\)?

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