- #1
Karl Karlsson
- 104
- 12
- TL;DR Summary
- Let $$A=\begin{pmatrix}
1 & 1 \\
1 & 0
\end{pmatrix}$$ with ##k=\mathbb{Z}_2## I think k is the set of scalars for a vector that can be multiplied with the matrix A (I could definitely be wrong). Then for some reason ##A^2= \begin{pmatrix} 0 & 1 \\ 1 & 1 \end{pmatrix}## this is not the same as ##A\cdot A##. Why? What has happened?
In my book no explanation for this concept is given and i can't find anything about it when I am searching. One example that was given was:
Let $$A=\begin{pmatrix}
1 & 1 \\
1 & 0
\end{pmatrix}$$ with ##k=\mathbb{Z}_2## I think k is the set of scalars for a vector that can be multiplied with the matrix A (I could definitely be wrong). Then for some reason ##A^2= \begin{pmatrix} 0 & 1 \\ 1 & 1 \end{pmatrix}## this is not the same as ##A\cdot A##. Why? What has happened?
Let $$A=\begin{pmatrix}
1 & 1 \\
1 & 0
\end{pmatrix}$$ with ##k=\mathbb{Z}_2## I think k is the set of scalars for a vector that can be multiplied with the matrix A (I could definitely be wrong). Then for some reason ##A^2= \begin{pmatrix} 0 & 1 \\ 1 & 1 \end{pmatrix}## this is not the same as ##A\cdot A##. Why? What has happened?