- #1
Sho Kano
- 372
- 3
So from Faraday's law, a change in the magnetic flux will induce an emf on a loop of wire.
[itex]{ \phi }_{ B }\quad =\quad BA\\ { \varepsilon }_{ ind }\quad =\quad \frac { d{ \phi }_{ B } }{ dt } [/itex]
(in this case a perpendicular field)
From these equations, it looks like the only way to induce a voltage is to change the magnetic field, change the area, and change the angle between the two. Then why does accelerating the loop through a constant field also induce an emf? The magnetic field and the area is constant in this case.
[itex]{ \phi }_{ B }\quad =\quad BA\\ { \varepsilon }_{ ind }\quad =\quad \frac { d{ \phi }_{ B } }{ dt } [/itex]
(in this case a perpendicular field)
From these equations, it looks like the only way to induce a voltage is to change the magnetic field, change the area, and change the angle between the two. Then why does accelerating the loop through a constant field also induce an emf? The magnetic field and the area is constant in this case.