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EE18
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In a discussion about the (change in the) Helmholtz potential being interpretable as the maximum available amount of work for a system in contact with a thermal reservoir (i.e. the free energy), Callen seems to insist this fact is true only for reversible processes. Why should this be? I understand that any quasistatic process performed in contact/equilibrium with a thermal reservoir (as is the case here) will necessarily be reversible (since heat exchange proceeds at the same temperature), but to my reading Callen's emphasis on reversible seems to suggest there's something extra here I am perhaps missing? After all, as far as I can tell we must have ##dW_{RWS} = -dU - dU^r## by pure energy conservation for any process.