- #1
Seidhee
- 8
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Hello,
I am reading the volume 2 of the Feynman's Lectures on Physics, and something is bothering me when he calculates the dipole moment of a single atom induced by an extern field :
https://books.google.co.uk/books?id=uaQfAQAAQBAJ&pg=SA11-PA2&lpg=SA11-PA2&dq=feynman+dipole+single+atom&source=bl&ots=6nmZCqHDMk&sig=cd6wOGCKh9E9227ZX-a8KKhTqlM&hl=fr&sa=X&ei=NuI8VbHdI8v9UOSvgOAD&ved=0CDEQ6AEwAQ#v=onepage&q=feynman%20dipole%20single%20atom&f=false
Indeed, he states that : " p = qex "
But why ? I would use in general : " p = Zqex " where Z is the number of electrons in the atom.
x is the displacement of the center of charges of the electrons, and thus x is also the displacement of each electron.
Could you explain his reasoning ? It is not the first time he uses a single electron charge instead of Z in his calculations, and I do not understand.
Thanks.
PS : First, I thought that was because the square of the natural pulsation ω0 depended on Z, which means that ω²0(Z) = Zω²0 (Z=1), which would simplify the Z replacing ω²0(Z) by Zω²0 (Z=1) ; but Feynman seems to use ω0 = ω0(Z) and not ω0 (Z=1) everywhere, so it does not matter.
I am reading the volume 2 of the Feynman's Lectures on Physics, and something is bothering me when he calculates the dipole moment of a single atom induced by an extern field :
https://books.google.co.uk/books?id=uaQfAQAAQBAJ&pg=SA11-PA2&lpg=SA11-PA2&dq=feynman+dipole+single+atom&source=bl&ots=6nmZCqHDMk&sig=cd6wOGCKh9E9227ZX-a8KKhTqlM&hl=fr&sa=X&ei=NuI8VbHdI8v9UOSvgOAD&ved=0CDEQ6AEwAQ#v=onepage&q=feynman%20dipole%20single%20atom&f=false
Indeed, he states that : " p = qex "
But why ? I would use in general : " p = Zqex " where Z is the number of electrons in the atom.
x is the displacement of the center of charges of the electrons, and thus x is also the displacement of each electron.
Could you explain his reasoning ? It is not the first time he uses a single electron charge instead of Z in his calculations, and I do not understand.
Thanks.
PS : First, I thought that was because the square of the natural pulsation ω0 depended on Z, which means that ω²0(Z) = Zω²0 (Z=1), which would simplify the Z replacing ω²0(Z) by Zω²0 (Z=1) ; but Feynman seems to use ω0 = ω0(Z) and not ω0 (Z=1) everywhere, so it does not matter.