- #1
nonequilibrium
- 1,439
- 2
Hello,
In my probability course it is used that [itex]\frac{1}{n} \sum_{k=3}^n \frac{1}{\log k} \propto \frac{1}{\log n}[/itex].
I hope I'm not being daft: can somebody enlighten me on why this is so?
In my probability course it is used that [itex]\frac{1}{n} \sum_{k=3}^n \frac{1}{\log k} \propto \frac{1}{\log n}[/itex].
I hope I'm not being daft: can somebody enlighten me on why this is so?