- #1
tntcoder
- 11
- 0
Hi,
Please can someone explain to me how this probability equation evaluates to 0.5
[tex]\frac{2^{f(n)+2}}{2^{f(n)+1}} = \frac{1}{2}[/tex]
f(n) is essentially anything in this context.
For me the probability evaluates to 2, but this is straight out a research paper and I can't doubt their maths.
This is the context:
Because there are [tex]2^{f(n)+2}[/tex] texts with length [tex]f(n)+2[/tex], the probability for a selected text with length [tex]f(n)+2[/tex] having a related
compressed text of length ≤ f(n) is less than [tex]\frac{2^{f(n)+2}}{2^{f(n)+1}} = \frac{1}{2}[/tex]
Please can someone explain to me where the 0.5 comes from? I can see if i turn the equation upside down it works, but I am guessing its not that simple :p
Please can someone explain to me how this probability equation evaluates to 0.5
[tex]\frac{2^{f(n)+2}}{2^{f(n)+1}} = \frac{1}{2}[/tex]
f(n) is essentially anything in this context.
For me the probability evaluates to 2, but this is straight out a research paper and I can't doubt their maths.
This is the context:
Because there are [tex]2^{f(n)+2}[/tex] texts with length [tex]f(n)+2[/tex], the probability for a selected text with length [tex]f(n)+2[/tex] having a related
compressed text of length ≤ f(n) is less than [tex]\frac{2^{f(n)+2}}{2^{f(n)+1}} = \frac{1}{2}[/tex]
Please can someone explain to me where the 0.5 comes from? I can see if i turn the equation upside down it works, but I am guessing its not that simple :p