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Here's what my prof says:
"Define F_{mean} to be the mean force, F_close to be the force on the side of the Earth closer to the moon, and F_far to be the force on the side of the Earth furthest away from the moon.
On the closer side the net force is F_close - F_mean > 0
On the further side the net force is F_far - F_mean < 0
So on the far side, the pull is weaker than it is on the rest of the Earth, hence the second bulge."
But I don't understand this explanation, because if the forces on the closest side of the Earth and the farthest side of the Earth are both pulling forces, then it doesn't make sense that the bulge should occur on both sides, but, rather, intuitively, it would seem that there should only be one bulge, that is on the closest side of the Earth to the moon, not two sides.
When I reviewed the process as described mathematically, it made sense, but I would like to understand this on the level of physical intuition. Would appreciate your input.
"Define F_{mean} to be the mean force, F_close to be the force on the side of the Earth closer to the moon, and F_far to be the force on the side of the Earth furthest away from the moon.
On the closer side the net force is F_close - F_mean > 0
On the further side the net force is F_far - F_mean < 0
So on the far side, the pull is weaker than it is on the rest of the Earth, hence the second bulge."
But I don't understand this explanation, because if the forces on the closest side of the Earth and the farthest side of the Earth are both pulling forces, then it doesn't make sense that the bulge should occur on both sides, but, rather, intuitively, it would seem that there should only be one bulge, that is on the closest side of the Earth to the moon, not two sides.
When I reviewed the process as described mathematically, it made sense, but I would like to understand this on the level of physical intuition. Would appreciate your input.