- #1
marellasunny
- 255
- 3
Why is brake mean eff.pressure higher at max.Torque than max.power?,I am looking for an explanation in terms of equations,since I already know the theoretical reason
i.e at Max.Power→the rpm is at Max for the engine →the friction losses are maximum→bmep at max power is lower than at max.torque.
[itex]
bmep=\frac{P_b(max)*n_R*10^3}{V_d*N}
[/itex]
[itex]
\\ bmep(max)=\frac{6.28*n_R*T(max)}{V_d}
[/itex]
the brake power definition does not in itself inculcate the friction losses,as you might well know,there exists another term 'friction power' for this purpose which does not even show-up in the above equations at all.So which part of the equations above suggest that the bmep being affected by friction?
i.e at Max.Power→the rpm is at Max for the engine →the friction losses are maximum→bmep at max power is lower than at max.torque.
[itex]
bmep=\frac{P_b(max)*n_R*10^3}{V_d*N}
[/itex]
[itex]
\\ bmep(max)=\frac{6.28*n_R*T(max)}{V_d}
[/itex]
the brake power definition does not in itself inculcate the friction losses,as you might well know,there exists another term 'friction power' for this purpose which does not even show-up in the above equations at all.So which part of the equations above suggest that the bmep being affected by friction?
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